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Chapter 4: INVESTORS & OBJECTIVES



Multiple Choice

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 1. 

Under Modern Portfolio Theory, an investor who owns an “efficient portfolio” holds:
a.
a portfolio of weakly corrolated stocks
b.
a portfolio of strongly corrolated stocks
c.
a portfolio with few transaction costs
d.
a relatively small portfolio that can be easily managed
 

 2. 

The Provident Annuity Company offers its variable annuity investors the choice of the Global Growth subaccount managed by Pacific Investments.  Pacific also manages the Global Growth mutual fund, which has performed very well in the past.  Advisors who recommend the Global Growth subaccount to their clients should:
a.
refer to the subaccount as a “clone” of the mutual fund
b.
note that the past investment results of the mutual fund
c.
disclose that Pacific manages both the fund and the subaccount
d.
disclose that the fund and the subaccount may not be managed by the same investment analyst
 

 3. 

All of the following variable annuity features allow an investor to accumulate capital under the tenets of Modern Portfolio Theory EXCEPT:
a.
automatic rebalancing of portfolio assets
b.
lack of transaction costs to switch between investment subaccounts
c.
actively managed subaccounts
d.
passively managed subaccount
 

 4. 

The difference between accumulating capital using an equity indexed annuity versus a variable annuity invested in an indexed subaccount is:
a.
the indexed subaccount may go down in value, the equity indexed annuity will not
b.
the investor in the indexed subaccount is credited with full market movements, the equity indexed annuity is not
c.
the indexed subaccount will receive dividend income from its passively managed portfolio, the equity indexed annuity will not
d.
all of the above are true
 

 5. 

Which of the following annuity types is most appropriate for investors with investment objectives of accumulation and conservation of capital
a.
fixed deferred annuities
b.
equity indexed annuities
c.
variable deferred annuities
d.
all of these annuities fulfill both accumulation and conservation objectives
 

 6. 

Which of the following risks is a possible reason that fixed deferred annuities will not fulfill a client’s objective of conservation of principal?
a.
interest rate risk
b.
legislative risk
c.
credit risk
d.
market risk
 

 7. 

What is the greatest risk facing investors who seek conservation of principal?
a.
tax risk
b.
purchasing power risk
c.
interest rate risk
d.
opportunity risk
 

 8. 

Which of the following riders would make a variable annuity a more suitable recommendation for an investor with an objective of conservation of principal?
a.
guaranteed minimum accumulation benefit (GMAB) rider
b.
guaranteed minimum income benefit (GMIB) rider
c.
guaranteed minimum withdraw benefit (GMWB) rider
d.
enhanced minimum death benefit rider
 

 9. 

Which of the following variable annuity riders is most suitable for client’s who have an objective of distribution and wish to retain as much flexibility as possible over her principal?
a.
guaranteed minimum accumulation benefit (GMAB) rider
b.
guaranteed minimum income benefit (GMIB) rider
c.
guaranteed minimum withdraw benefit (GMWB) rider
d.
enhanced minimum death benefit rider
 

 10. 

Which of the following annuities is least affected by the annuity company’s credit risk?
a.
fixed annuities
b.
indexed annuities
c.
variable annuities
d.
all of these annuities are equally subject to the annuity company’s credit risk
 

 11. 

All deferred annuities will contain minimum payout tables when the contract is established.  Historically, those minimum payout table are typically:
a.
less favorable than payouts based on current conditions when the account is annuitized
b.
the same as payouts based on current conditions when the account is annuitized
c.
more favorable than payouts based on current conditions when the account is annuitized
d.
there is no fixed relationship between the two possible payouts
 

 12. 

Which of the following are annuity features that may be of interest to investors seeking to transfer wealth to beneficiaries?
a.
waiver of surrender fees upon the contractholder’s death
b.
enhanced minimum death benefits
c.
payment of benefits to beneficiaries outside of probate system
d.
all of the above
 

 13. 

Which of the following investment factors prompted tightening of state laws on annuity disclosures and suitablity analysis?
a.
tax deferral
b.
liquidity
c.
creditor protection
d.
estate planning
 

 14. 

Which of the following affect the liquidity of an investment in annuities
a.
surrender charges
b.
up front sales charges
c.
contract charges
d.
all of the above
 

 15. 

Investments in annuities offer indivdiual investors:
a.
significant tax advantages
b.
significant tax disadvantages
c.
both a and b
d.
neither a nor b
 

 16. 

To determine whether the tax deferral offered by annuity contracts provides a greater benefit to an investor than a comparable taxable investment depends on:
a.
the investor’s current tax rate
b.
the investor’s tax rate at the time of withdrawal
c.
the length of the investment period
d.
all of the above
 

 17. 

Which of the following factors has an impact on an investor’s investment horizon?
a.
tax penalties for premature withdrawals
b.
financial needs
c.
surrender charges
d.
all of the above
 

 18. 

In Florida, which of the following are protected from claims of the client’s creditors?
a.
investments held by the client’s IRA
b.
death benefits paid by the client’s annuity or life insurance to the client’s beneficiaries
c.
the principal balance in the client’s deferred variable annuity
d.
all of the above
 

 19. 

Advisors should recommend that clients buy annuity contracts within their revocable living trusts:
a.
to most of their clients to simplify estate administration
b.
to take advantage of special tax treatment of trust owned contracts
c.
if there are special circumstances that warrant it
d.
all of the above
 

 20. 

The key difference between a charitable remainder annuity trust (CRAT) and a charitable remiander unitrust (CRUT) is:
a.
the type of charitable organizations that can benefit
b.
how the annual income payments are calculated
c.
the length of time income payments can be paid
d.
the type of assets used to fund the arrangement
 



 
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